Spurs won in the Europa League tonight losing 4-1, 4-4 on aggregate to Inter Milan. Content though I am with this outcome, it further begs a question I've been asking a long time.
Tottenham won the tie on the basis that they scored an away goal more than Inter. But in the event that the scores from the first and second leg are identical such as the match in question, the away team of the second leg stand a clear mathematical advantage in that come the end of extra time, they have had 120 minutes in which to score the all-important away goals, where the home team only had 90.
Am I the only person to have spotted this, or just the only one to find it outrageous?
Tottenham won the tie on the basis that they scored an away goal more than Inter. But in the event that the scores from the first and second leg are identical such as the match in question, the away team of the second leg stand a clear mathematical advantage in that come the end of extra time, they have had 120 minutes in which to score the all-important away goals, where the home team only had 90.
Am I the only person to have spotted this, or just the only one to find it outrageous?