Iirc doesn't football creditors (players wages) take first call on assets, with the taxman not having preferential status in footballing Administration?
If so it would make sense to pay them first anyway.
I would think IF the story is true that the reason he will pay the wages is to get us to next months transfer window when players will be sold. This seems to imply that deals have been done already and sales will bring in more than the cost of the wage bill to get there - otherwise what is the point?
If so it would make sense to pay them first anyway.
I would think IF the story is true that the reason he will pay the wages is to get us to next months transfer window when players will be sold. This seems to imply that deals have been done already and sales will bring in more than the cost of the wage bill to get there - otherwise what is the point?